I apologize. Last week I did not post a question. We originally planned to spend but a single day on Dickie and when the decision was made to extend the unit, I failed to realize the consequent of needing a question. I am sorry for that. Here, however, are the questions for this week.
Kivy articulates a contour theory for the expressivism of music, claiming that the expression is due to the similarity between the emotion expressed and the behavior of a person operating under that particular emotion. However, even he raises some objections to his own theory and admits there may not be answers to them.
1) Does the Contour Theory have merit? What of his objections? Is his notion of "there is no better explanation" a legitimate reason for believing it?
Hanslick maintains that music is exclusively nonrepresentational. Unlike poetry and literature and painting, music lacks the ability to represent anything beyond itself.
2) Is this true? Because music lacks any visual, lacks any actual verbal component, does it follow that it cannot represent?
I responded to your first question on my blog.
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